Is the omnipotent also omniscient? That is, does
omnipotence imply omniscience? An omnipotent being can do all possible
things; knowing something is a possibility, thus, an omnipotent can know
things. This means that an omnipotent being must have a mind, otherwise
it could not know anything. So, omnipotence is at least consistent with
omniscience. However, since the omnipotent has a mind, it can have desires and if it desires to know something, because it is omnipotent, it knows it ... but this presupposes specific desires above and beyond omnipotence and therefore doesn't allow the derivation of omniscience from omnipotence. What does this all mean? It means, I believe, that a leap of faith is required to get from omnipotence to omniscience.
If something is omniscient, is it
omnibenevolent? If the Platonic principle of Ignorance, which states
that evil is only done unintentionally (when a being acts contrary to
what is good they still believe they are acting in the interest of what
is at least good for themselves), is true then a being which knew all truths would necessarily only be capable of doing good.
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